James Tracy
86p936 comments posted · 21 followers · following 16
6 days ago @ Conversational Atheist - Gaining knowledge abou... · 0 replies · +1 points
1 hour ago @ AnAtheist.Net - The Jewish View Of Jesus · 0 replies · +1 points
1 hour ago @ AnAtheist.Net - Paul vs. Jesus on Salv... · 0 replies · +1 points
12 hours ago @ AnAtheist.Net - Paul vs. Jesus on Salv... · 0 replies · +1 points
Resurrection: It may seem like the most heinous crime against humanity ever in retrospect but you would have to fault his followers for foolishly perpetuating it, not Jesus. Then again, cults of rising and dying godmen were prevalent in the Greek and Roman worlds of the time. Anyway - you are speaking of an enormously large IF.
1 day ago @ AnAtheist.Net - Paul vs. Jesus on Salv... · 0 replies · +1 points
2 days ago @ AnAtheist.Net - Paul vs. Jesus on Salv... · 0 replies · +1 points
2 days ago @ AnAtheist.Net - So Who is the Idiot? · 0 replies · +1 points
3 days ago @ AnAtheist.Net - Good People in the New... · 0 replies · +1 points
Acts 8:33. Both the KJV and the NRSV read "his generation" which doesn't really give you the meaning that you want. The NIV does read "his descendants" but even here I think you are incorrect in inferring that genea means a long list of generations. Where the NIV asks "Who can speak of his descendants?" the contemporary English version asks "How can he have children?" My understanding is that these other versions are using the first meaning given by Strong's lexicon: "fathered, birth, nativity." The passage seems to be asking how this person could farther or give birth to the next generation, for his own posterity, if he is dead. Genea therefore refers to the originating of descendants, not the line of descendants itself, if we follow Strong's. So you still do not get your meaning.
Acts 14:16. The NRSV translates this as "generations" (In past generations) while the KJV translates this as "times" (in times past). The use of the plural here should be significant but you summarily ignore it, as you have before. Genea is not a single large span of time, rather the single large span of time is made up of multiple geneas (plural) or periods of time.
I am not a Greek scholar, of course, but I wanted to try and confirm if Acts 8:33 is using genea in the singular and if Acts 14:16 is using genea in the plural. Indeed, this is the case, as greekbible.com confirms for me. Acts 8:33 uses the singular γενεὰν while Acts 14:16 uses the plural form γενεαῖς. The only reason that it shows a period of time far greater than a single human generation is because it is referring to multiple geneas, not a single genea!
The same remarks can be made concerning your last two citations. The NRSV translates Ephesians 3:5 as "In former generations..." and Colossians 1:26 as "throughout the ages and generations."
Face it - here you are clearly and demonstrably wrong.
4 days ago @ AnAtheist.Net - Good People in the New... · 2 replies · +1 points
What you don't get is that the third 'aspect' is not simply a repetition of the first, as you seem to indicate in your last paragraph. It is a more narrow definition that is limited to individuals who are related through biological descent. The use of the plural simply indicates that there is a very specific relationship between each successive 'generation' according to this meaning. That's it.
6 days ago @ AnAtheist.Net - Good People in the New... · 4 replies · +1 points
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