Not sure

The quiz has been updated and is now working. Took a while to search around for a good plugin that wasn't complicated and actually worked.

I found the article interesting to read, but I'm not convinced that he's made a convincing argument. I read in John 16:7-8. Nevertheless I tell you the truth. It is to your advantage that I go away for if I do not go away, the Helper will not come to you; but if I depart, I will send Him to you. And when he has come, He will convict the world of sin, and of righteousness and of judgment." Luke records that they were told to wait for the Promise of the Father. "Behold, I send the Promise of My Father upon you; but tarry in the city of Jerusalem until you are endued with power from on high." (Lk. 24:49) On Pentecost, Peter identifies the coming of the Spirit with the fulfillment of the prophecy of Joel, saying "This is what was spoken by the prophet Joel:" (Acts 2:16-20). He concludes by saying of Christ, "Therefore being exalted to the right hand of God, and having received from the Father the promise of the Holy Spirit, He poured out this which you now see and hear." (Acts 2:33). From all these passages, it appears to me that the Holy Spirit would be sent down from heaven. Peter says the same in 1 Peter 1:12. "To them it was revealed that, not to themselves, but to us they were ministering the things which now have been reported to you through those who have preached the gospel to you by the Holy Spirit sent from heaven--things which angels desire to look into. The other problem I see with the Leithart's line of reasoning are the texts such as 1 Peter 1:20: "Who through Him believe in God, who raised Him from the dead and gave him glory, so that your faith and hope are in God. The glory is subsequent to the cross and follows the resurrection. "Then He said to them, "O foolish ones, and slow of heart to believe in all that he prophets have spoken! Ought not the Christ to have suffered these things and to enter into His glory." (Luke 24:25-26). Leithart supplied Philippians 2:8-9, but notice again the latter verse, "Therefore God also has highly exalted Him and given Him the name which is above every name..." (v. 8). Comparing this with Ephesians 1:20-21, the exaltation and name is again linked to Christ's ascension and seat at the right hand of the Father. Hebrews 12:2, says the cross was the shame. "Looking unto Jesus, the author and finisher of our faith, who for the joy that was set before Him endured the cross, despising the shame, and has sat down at the right hand o the throne of God." When Paul speaks of the "glory" of the cross, he refers specifically to the "preaching of the cross" as the means of salvation, (1 Cor. 1:18). In that I understand the cross as one of the "base" things which God chose to confound the wise. Note this quote from Leithart: "All these transfers of Jesus culminate in Jesus’ own transfer of His Spirit to the church. Having been glorified in His death on the cross, Jesus hands over His Spirit." emp. added. I'm not sure if he means that when Jesus died he delivered his Spirit to the church. If so, I find that objectionable. According to Luke, Jesus said, "Father, into Your hands I commit My spirit" (Luke 23:46). Would Christ be giving the Holy Spirit to the Father? That is just the opposite order per John 16:14-15, which says the Father gave the Spirit to Christ. I think the text in John 7:39 and 21:22, are proleptic statements that look forward to the ascension. Whatever they mean, they should not in my judgment be interpreted to mean that the cross was the glory of Christ upon Jesus' descent into Hades. "But to each one of us grace was given according to the measure of the Christ's gift. Therefore He says: "When He ascended on high, He led captivity captive, and gave gifts to men." (Eph. 4:7-8)

I would need more clarification from the perspective of your question. Christ was their hope. "To them God willed to make known what are the riches of the glory of this mystery among the Gentiles: Which is Christ in you, the hope of glory." (Col. 1:27). The church was saved through hope. For we were saved in this hope, but hope that is seen is not hope; for why does one still hope for what he sees? But if we hope for what we do not see, we eagerly wait for it with perseverance. (Rom. 8:24-25) . The saints were absent from the Lord but had received him in earnest through the Spirit. Thus, they eagerly waiting his return. This is what I believe Jesus meant when he said, I go away to prepare a place for you and if I go I will come again. If he never left, he could not have gone away. If he had not gone away, the Holy Spirit could not have come (Jno 16:7)If the Holy Spirit had not come during the time Christ went away, they would have been orphans. They could not have been orphans if Christ was present. So, if you mean they didn't have Christ through faith in the hope of his return, my answer is that is not correct. If you mean they had no hope, thus were without Christ as others (unbelievers) who had no hope, again I would say incorrect. But if you mean they had Christ through the surety of His promise to return in the glory of and with his Father (Matthew 16:27-28; John 14:1-3, 23), to be fulfilled in 70AD before that generation passed, then I would answer correct. During Christ's absence, they had the Holy Spirit to lead and guide them, so they would not be orphans until he returned. If this is not clear, please send me more information.

Robin, thank you for your gracious comments. If there is one thing that the book of Daniel teaches, especially from the visions, is that "there is a God in heaven who reveals secrets." I am grateful that the perspective of allowing the angel to interpret the vision has shed more light on your understanding. Help me to spread that word as far and wide as we can. I see too many of our scholars who just don't seem to get that simple point. It's a devastating blow to both futurist and partial paradigms.

This is most definitely a hypothetical question which assumes a condition which is contrary to fact. People do live beyond 70AD. We are proof of that and so were those in the first century. Prior to 70AD, Gentiles were without Christ, Jews had Christ only in types and shadows of what was coming (Rom. 5;14; Col. 2:14-17; Heb. 10:1). Christians had Christ in earnest through the Spirit, a condition or guarantee which could be forfeited, Rom. 8:13; Gal. 1:6-7; 3;2-5... Since those who were in the flesh could not please God, (Rom. 8;9) and whoever did not have the Spirit, did not belong to him, (Jude 19), 70AD would have made no difference as there were those who did not have Christ before 70AD.

"So then, those who are in the flesh cannot please God. But you are not in the flesh but in the Spirit, if indeed the Spirit of God dwells in you. Now if anyone does not have the Spirit of Christ, he is not His Rom. 8:8-9. In addition, "For if you live according to the flesh you will die; but if by the Spirit you put to death the deeds of the body, you will live. (Rom. 8:13)..

Christ is the resurrection and He was "absent" (2 Cor. 5:6-8) during the pre-Parousia reign. He was the one "hope" 1 Timothy 1:1, Eph. 4:4, and the eternal life promised per 1 Jon 2:25; and 1 John 5:20 to which the saints looked, i.e. Christ in you the hope of glory, Col. 1:27. They walked by faith, not by sight (2 Cor. 5:7) as faith was the substance of things hope for and the evidence of things not realized.

Had Jesus failed to return in 70 AD all hope would be lost, the dead would have perished in their sins and the living as well due to a reneging of the promise of the Holy Spirit.. Without Christ there is no life (Col. 3:4). All life during the eschaton was through the Holy Spirit who was sent in the absence of Christ until his return. The Spirit was therefore, the "earnest" of the actual inheritance. See Eph. 1:13-14.

So the real question is. Could Christ be found (realized or received) in the types and shadows of the Old Covenant? Could he be received if the saints gave up the Spirit (Gal. 3:2-5)? Could he be received if the Holy Spirit failed his mission to raise the dead or perfect the saints? On what other condition(s) did they have Christ?

I think you hit the nail on the head. Prophetically speaking, "nothing." There would be a lot of chaos in the world. I've just posted an article that helps to bring more clarity to the temple entitled a house not made with hands. I will post it here later, but haven't had the time just yet. You can search for "A House Not Made With Hands" by googling "Memphis Eschatology Examiner." Thanks.

I would certainly enjoy speaking with you. I will email you.

That's a good point and worthy of my consideration. It certainly does no violence to the text nor to the inclusion of the Gentiles. So, let me "ruminate" over it. Thanks for pointing it out.

Pass it on, and thanks!